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Res 342 Final Exam On Hypothesis Test
Res 342 Final Exam On Hypothesis Test
Order ID 53003233773 Type Essay Writer Level Masters Style APA Sources/References 4 Perfect Number of Pages to Order 5-10 Pages Description/Paper Instructions
Res 342 Final Exam On Hypothesis Test
1) What is the critical z-values for a two-tailed hypothesis test if the significant level = 0.01?
2) In classical hypothesis testing, the test statistic is to the critical value what the __________.
3) For a hypothesis test of a single population mean at 95% confidence level, a calculated Z score of 1.7 supports the conclusion that
4) If the paired differences are normal in a test of mean differences, then the distribution used for testing is the
5) One hundred women were polled and 60 reported successfully communicating an automobile problem to an auto repairman. A sample of 150 men had 95 reporting the same success. The value of the test statistic for a test of the equality of proportions is
6) Weekly sales of iPods® at 20 Best Buy® stores are compared before and after installing a new eye-catching display. To determine if the display is effective in increasing sales, what type of statistical test would you perform?
7) When is it appropriate to use the paired difference t-test?
8) A survey of hotels found that the average hotel room rate in New Orleans is $88.42 and the average room rate in Phoenix is $80.61. The survey sampled 50 hotels in each city. The standard deviations were $5.62 and $4.83, respectively. At alpha=.05, it can be concluded that there is a significant different in the rates?
9) If the paired differences are normal in a test of mean differences, the distribution used for testing is the
10) The accountant for Thomas’s Furniture Store is concerned regarding the outstanding receivable owed the company. There has been a cash flow problem and it is believed that the slow collection of accounts receivable is partially the blame. The accountant believes that 40% of the present accounts are more than 4 months behind in making payments. To be able to make a decision regarding this belief, a random sample of 100 accounts was taken. It was found that 37 accounts were more than 4 months late. Did the sample data confirm the accountant’s belief? Use the .05 significant level for the statistical test.
11) New college business graduates are finding it difficult to get a job. A business journal has reported that only one in five graduates is able to find a job within 6 months of their graduation. A report by University of Phoenix indicated that out of a survey of 300 recent business graduates, 75 had jobs. You are a business major at University of Phoenix and have a concern about getting a job. Based on this data, will a graduate of University of Phoenix have a better chance of getting a job in the first 6 months after graduation? Use the .05 significant level for the test.
- No, there is not a significant difference.
- It cannot be predicted based on this data.
- Yes, there is a significant difference.
- The business journal information is incorrect.
12) Analysis of variance (ANOVA) is used to
13) Mr. Thomas owns three different restaurants in Cincinnati, Ohio. He is concerned about the profitability of the restaurants. There are monthly differences between the restaurants and he wants to determine if the differences in profit are significant. Mr. Thomas wants to do a statistical test to see if he should be concerned. The best test to address this problem would be
14) Sound engineers studied factors that might affect the output, in decibels, of a rock concert’s speaker system. The desired level of significance was a = .05. The results of their ANOVA tests are shown:
Source of Variation SS df MS F P-value
Amplifier 99.02344 99.02344 0.005718
Position 93.98698 31.32899 3.215807 0.051003
Interaction 10.15365 3 3.384549 0.347412 0.791505
Error 155.875 16 9.742188
Total 359.0391 23
The interaction between the Position and Amplifier treatments was
15) Totto, an automobile manufacturer, has designed a radically new engine and wants to recommend the grade of gasoline that will have the best fuel economy. The four grades are regular, below regular, premium, and super premium. The test car made three trial runs on the test track using each of the grades and the miles per gallon were recorded. At the 0.05 level, what is the critical value of F used to test the hypothesis that the miles per gallon for each fuel are the same?
16) If an ANOVA test is conducted and the null hypothesis is rejected, what does this indicate?
17) Nonparametric statistics are used when
18) The nonparametric test most commonly used for testing the statistical independence between two variables is
19) What nonparametric test is used when the assumptions for the parametric ANOVA cannot be met? Its purpose is to test whether three or more populations are equal. The data must be at least ordinal scaled.
20) Rachael Smith is the personnel manager at Johnson and Johnston, an accounting firm. She is concerned about absenteeism, which seems to be an increasing problem, especially after days off work. She decided to sample the records to determine if absenteeism was distributed evenly throughout the 6-day work week. The null hypothesis to be tested was: Absenteeism is distributed evenly throughout the week. The sample results were:
Day of Week Number Absent
Monday 12
Tuesday 9
Wednesday 11
Thursday 10
Friday 9
Saturday 9
What is the critical value of chi-square with a significant level of = 0.05?
21) A public opinion poll surveyed a simple random sample of voters. Respondents were classified by gender and by voting preference—Republican, Democrat, or Independent. The results follow.
Voting Preferences Republican Democrat Independent Row total
Male 200 150 50 400
Female 250 300 50 600
Column total 450 450 100 1000
If you conduct a chi-square test of independence, what is the expected frequency count of male Independents?
22) What parametric test is equivalent to the nonparametric Spearman’s rank test?
23) What is the variable used to predict another variable called?
24) Michelle used a sample of 50 U.S. cities to estimate the relationship between crime, or annual property crimes per 100,000 persons, and income, or median income per capita. Her estimated regression equation was crime = 428 – .01 income. Assuming her model is statistically significant, if income decreases by $1,000, we would predict that crime will
25) In the least squares equation, Y’ = 12 + 25X the value of 25 indicates
26) A test is conducted in eight cities to see if giving away free transit system maps will increase bus ridership. In a regression analysis, the dependent variable is the increase in bus ridership in thousands of persons from the start of the test until its conclusion. The independent variables are X1 = the number in thousands of free maps distributed and X2 = a binary equal to 1, if the city has free downtown parking and 0 otherwise. The estimated regression equation is Y = 1.32+.0345X1-1.45X2. If the Y value for city 3 is 7.3, X1 = 140, and X2 = 0 the residual for city 3 in thousands is:
27) The following linear trend equation was developed for the annual sales of the Tractor Manufacturing Company. Y’ = 355 + 50t in thousands of dollars. How much are sales increasing by?
28) The time series component that reflects variability over short, repetitive time periods that last less than one year is called
29) A research company has been hired by a realty company to do an analysis of heating cost of homes in the region. The realty company wanted to be able to predict the heating cost of a typical single-family home. The realty company was constantly being asked questions regarding heating costs by potential home buyers. It was believed that these variables would impact heating costs (Y’): mean daily outdoor temperature (X1), the number of inches of insulation (X2), and the age in years of the furnace (X3). The multiple regression analysis produced the following regression equation: Y’ = 427.2 – 4.58X1 – 14.83X2 + 6.10X3. Which statement is correct based on this analysis?
30) If we fit a linear trend to data that are growing exponentially,
Res 342 Final Exam On Hypothesis Test
RUBRIC
QUALITY OF RESPONSE NO RESPONSE POOR / UNSATISFACTORY SATISFACTORY GOOD EXCELLENT Content (worth a maximum of 50% of the total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 20 points out of 50: The essay illustrates poor understanding of the relevant material by failing to address or incorrectly addressing the relevant content; failing to identify or inaccurately explaining/defining key concepts/ideas; ignoring or incorrectly explaining key points/claims and the reasoning behind them; and/or incorrectly or inappropriately using terminology; and elements of the response are lacking. 30 points out of 50: The essay illustrates a rudimentary understanding of the relevant material by mentioning but not full explaining the relevant content; identifying some of the key concepts/ideas though failing to fully or accurately explain many of them; using terminology, though sometimes inaccurately or inappropriately; and/or incorporating some key claims/points but failing to explain the reasoning behind them or doing so inaccurately. Elements of the required response may also be lacking. 40 points out of 50: The essay illustrates solid understanding of the relevant material by correctly addressing most of the relevant content; identifying and explaining most of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology; explaining the reasoning behind most of the key points/claims; and/or where necessary or useful, substantiating some points with accurate examples. The answer is complete. 50 points: The essay illustrates exemplary understanding of the relevant material by thoroughly and correctly addressing the relevant content; identifying and explaining all of the key concepts/ideas; using correct terminology explaining the reasoning behind key points/claims and substantiating, as necessary/useful, points with several accurate and illuminating examples. No aspects of the required answer are missing. Use of Sources (worth a maximum of 20% of the total points). Zero points: Student failed to include citations and/or references. Or the student failed to submit a final paper. 5 out 20 points: Sources are seldom cited to support statements and/or format of citations are not recognizable as APA 6th Edition format. There are major errors in the formation of the references and citations. And/or there is a major reliance on highly questionable. The Student fails to provide an adequate synthesis of research collected for the paper. 10 out 20 points: References to scholarly sources are occasionally given; many statements seem unsubstantiated. Frequent errors in APA 6th Edition format, leaving the reader confused about the source of the information. There are significant errors of the formation in the references and citations. And/or there is a significant use of highly questionable sources. 15 out 20 points: Credible Scholarly sources are used effectively support claims and are, for the most part, clear and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition is used with only a few minor errors. There are minor errors in reference and/or citations. And/or there is some use of questionable sources. 20 points: Credible scholarly sources are used to give compelling evidence to support claims and are clearly and fairly represented. APA 6th Edition format is used accurately and consistently. The student uses above the maximum required references in the development of the assignment. Grammar (worth maximum of 20% of total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 5 points out of 20: The paper does not communicate ideas/points clearly due to inappropriate use of terminology and vague language; thoughts and sentences are disjointed or incomprehensible; organization lacking; and/or numerous grammatical, spelling/punctuation errors 10 points out 20: The paper is often unclear and difficult to follow due to some inappropriate terminology and/or vague language; ideas may be fragmented, wandering and/or repetitive; poor organization; and/or some grammatical, spelling, punctuation errors 15 points out of 20: The paper is mostly clear as a result of appropriate use of terminology and minimal vagueness; no tangents and no repetition; fairly good organization; almost perfect grammar, spelling, punctuation, and word usage. 20 points: The paper is clear, concise, and a pleasure to read as a result of appropriate and precise use of terminology; total coherence of thoughts and presentation and logical organization; and the essay is error free. Structure of the Paper (worth 10% of total points) Zero points: Student failed to submit the final paper. 3 points out of 10: Student needs to develop better formatting skills. The paper omits significant structural elements required for and APA 6th edition paper. Formatting of the paper has major flaws. The paper does not conform to APA 6th edition requirements whatsoever. 5 points out of 10: Appearance of final paper demonstrates the student’s limited ability to format the paper. There are significant errors in formatting and/or the total omission of major components of an APA 6th edition paper. They can include the omission of the cover page, abstract, and page numbers. Additionally the page has major formatting issues with spacing or paragraph formation. Font size might not conform to size requirements. The student also significantly writes too large or too short of and paper 7 points out of 10: Research paper presents an above-average use of formatting skills. The paper has slight errors within the paper. This can include small errors or omissions with the cover page, abstract, page number, and headers. There could be also slight formatting issues with the document spacing or the font Additionally the paper might slightly exceed or undershoot the specific number of required written pages for the assignment. 10 points: Student provides a high-caliber, formatted paper. This includes an APA 6th edition cover page, abstract, page number, headers and is double spaced in 12’ Times Roman Font. Additionally, the paper conforms to the specific number of required written pages and neither goes over or under the specified length of the paper.
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